2025 ഡിസംബർ 5, വെള്ളിയാഴ്‌ച

Justice Abhay Oka Vm Tarkunde Lecture India Needs Scientific Temper But Anyone Proposing Religious Reform Gets Targeted By Religious Groups

Speaking at an event, former Supreme Court judge Justice Abhay S Oka today expressed that India is in need of building a scientific temper to fight prevailing superstitions but anyone who proposes religious reforms gets targeted by religious groups.

"Though our Constitution has existed for 76 years now, our society has not generally supported great people who have consistently promoted the development of scientific temper and reforms. Unfortunately, in our society, anyone who proposes reforms in religious practices based on science or with help of science gets targeted by people belonging to religious groups. This applies squarely to all religions. In a country like India, we desperately need scientific temper as in our society, superstitions prevail. We don't understand the difference between faith and superstitions. The moment the social reformers speak against superstitions, it is projected as if they are interfering with rights conferred under Article 25 of the Constitution", he said.

Justice Oka was speaking at the 16th V.M. Tarkunde Memorial Lecture organized by the Tarkunde Memorial Foundation at the India International Centre, New Delhi. His address was centred on the theme “Our Constitution and the Fundamental Duty to Develop a Scientific Temper". The VM Tarkunde Memorial Lecture is held annually to honor the legacy of Justice V.M. Tarkunde, renowned for his contributions to civil liberties, constitutionalism, and public interest lawyering in India.

Justice Oka's lecture highlighted that fundamental duties (in Part IV of the Constitution) compliment fundamental rights guaranteed under Part III. He particularly spoke about clauses (g) and (h) of Article 51A, which cast a fundamental duty on every citizen,

"(g) to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

(h) to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform"

Justice Oka further said that the precautionary principle in environmental jurisprudence can be traced to Article 51A. However, he refrained from commenting on whether the Supreme Court has departed from the said principle. Notably, the Supreme Court, by 2:1 majority, recently recalled its judgment in Vanashakti judgment, which barred the Union from granting post-facto environmental clearances.

Explaining how fundamental rights and duties compliment each other, Justice Oka said that as there exists a right to freedom of speech and expression [under Article 19(1)(a)] and the state and individual have duty to abide by the Constitution [under Article 51A(a)], it becomes duty of every citizen to ensure that the fundamental right to speech and expression of other citizen is protected and this becomes collective duty of the state.

Likewise, he gave the example of right to live a dignified life under Article 21. "the right to live dignified life is within compass of Article 21 and by virtue of clause g of Article 51A, it becomes fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and preserve the environment so that right of other citizen to enjoy fundamental right under Article 21 to live in pollution free environment is protected. In this context, clause h becomes very important. It casts duty on every citizen to develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform...I believe that a person can live a dignified life only if we have developed a scientific temper."

Justice Oka further opined that developing scientific temper involves rational thinking and spirit of reform. Unless we have the integrity to accept data and results even when they are inconvenient to popular beliefs, we can't have a scientific temper, he said.

Pointing to prevailing superstitions in Indian society, Justice Oka stressed that proposed reforms are often met with hostility even though the reforms can actually help the cause of the religion. The former judge also observed that using technology does not necessarily mean we have developed scientific temper. He further alleged failure on the part of the state to perform its collective duty, pointing to a proposal to cut 100-year-old trees for Kumbh Mela in 2027.

"if we had perfectly performed our duty of developing scientific temper and state of reforms, we would not have allowed killing and sacrificing of animals for celebrating religious festivals, we would not have allowed the indiscriminate use of loudspeakers during our festivals", Justice Oka said.

He also claimed that the political class appeases the populace in the name of religion and is therefore unwilling to carry out reforms. In closing, Justice Oka advocated for the need to make certain fundamental duties [clauses (a), (g) and (h)] part of the academic curriculum to sensitise the future generations.


https://www.livelaw.in/top-stories/justice-abhay-oka-vm-tarkunde-lecture-india-needs-scientific-temper-but-anyone-proposing-religious-reform-gets-targeted-by-religious-groups-312402




2025 നവംബർ 26, ബുധനാഴ്‌ച

'Hospitals Must Display Rates, Mustn't Deny Emergency Care For Not Paying Advance' : Kerala High Court Upholds Clinical Establishments Act K. Salma Jennath

27 Nov 2025 8:52 AM (14 mins read ) Hospitals Must Display Rates, Mustnt Deny Emergency Care For Not Paying Advance : Kerala High Court Upholds Clinical Establishments Act Listen to this Article The Kerala High Court on Wednesday (November 26) dismissed the appeals preferred by the Indian Medical Association (IMA) and the Kerala Private Hospitals Association against a Single Bench's order upholding the provisions of the Kerala Clinical Establishment Act and Rules. The Division Bench comprising Justice Sushrut Arvind Dharmadhikari and Justice Syam Kumar V.M. upheld the law, which was implemented in a phased manner from 2019, and dismissed the challenges to it being vague, arbitrary, impractical and disproportionate. Also Read - Kerala High Court Directs Calicut University To Convene Senate Within 30 Days To Replace Recused Member In VC Search Committee “Let this judgment serve not merely as a declaration of law but as a reaffirmation of the right to dignified, ethical, and equitable medical care,” the Bench had remarked. The Bench further opined that it was in conformity with global standards, similar to those in the United States and the European Union. The appellants had primarily challenged the mandatory requirement to disclose details of hospital employees and the obligation to publish the list of fees to be charged for each treatment item and for packages. They had also challenged the mandate under the law to compulsorily provide lifesaving treatments and safe transport to patients. Also Read - 'Prima Facie Money Laundering Made Out': Kerala High Court Denies Pre-Arrest Bail To Businessman Accused In Cashew Import Scam The State defended the law, which is intended to safeguard public health, uphold patient rights and safety, promote transparency and ethical standards in clinical practice, better equip hospitals and clinics for public health emergencies and for maintaining consistent and high standard, and to create a level-playing field within the healthcare sector. Examining the provisions under challenge and the statutory framework, the Court observed that the Act merely lays down the manner of implementation of already existing constitutional duties: Also Read - Buyer–Seller Credit Dealings Not “Mutual, Open & Current Account” Under Article 1 Of Limitation Act: Kerala High Court “The Act does not create new constraints; rather, it operationalizes these constitutional duties through a registration-cum- standards regime, a transparency mandate, and enforceable minimum requirements for emergency care and stabilization.” Mandatory price disclosure Rejecting the argument that the terms “types of service” and “package rates” falling under Section 39 are vague, the Bench opined: “The Act does not require clairvoyant pre-pricing of every possible clinical contingency; it mandates good faith baseline tariffs for identifiable services and packages, with itemized billing for add-ons, complications, and extended stays.” Also Read - Kerala High Court Permits State To Accept Land Tax From Residents Of Disputed Munambam Land The Bench further spoke in favour of the price disclosure mandate, which, in its opinion, is less intrusive than price-fixation for services and also serves a public interest by providing protection against exploitative charging. Defining “package rates”, it observed that the same “refer to baseline tariffs for commonly performed procedures with standard inclusions. Unforeseen complications, management of co-morbidities, extended ICU stays, and high-end consumables may be billed separately, provided there is disclosure and clinical justification.” Disclosure of details of doctors and other employees The Court noted that there is no requirement to publish personal information of doctors and other employees to the public. In fact, it is necessary to be furnished only to satisfy about availability and competence of staff. “the measure: (i) has legality, as it is grounded in a statutory source; (ii) pursues a legitimate aim, namely patient safety and quality of care; (iii) is proportionate, being limited to role-appropriate particulars and enabling audit or inspection; and (iv) carries procedural safeguards, including use limitation and the possibility of review or appeal of adverse actions,” the Bench remarked, referring to Justice Puttaswamy v. Union of India, the landmark decision on privacy. It further opined that the State may issue guidelines for limitation of purpose for disclosure, data minimization, confidentiality, etc. “Staff data (Form 2A) shall be collected and used solely for regulatory purposes. The authority shall frame guidelines on confidentiality, purpose limitation, access control, and retention. Publication to the general public is not required unless specifically authorised by law,” was the Court's direction in this regard. Emergency care and safe transfer The Court was of the opinion that the obligations are in conformity with global standards. It remarked: “compliance is capacity-graded: all establishments must provide first aid and stabilization to the extent feasible and ensure safe transfer, including communication, documentation, and transport. No establishment shall deny initial lifesaving aid on account of non- payment or lapses in documentation.” Court's guidelines As a conclusion to the judgment, the Court had also issued certain guidelines for the effective implementation of the same. “Consistent with the Single Judge's approach and past pandemic-era directions, we underscore the following: Visible rate display at admissions, billing counters, and on websites; itemised bills available on request. District-level grievance cells under the DMO/Registering Authority, with a time-bound complaints process; periodic compliance audits focusing on emergency care denials, exorbitant add-ons, and staffing minima. Digital registers/portals for registration status, inspection notes (appropriately redacted), and speaking orders in penalty actions. Training and drills on triage/stabilization, infection control, and safe transfer protocols, drawing on WHO/EUSEM materials.” Capacity-graded emergency care The hospitals are directed to stabilize emergency patients according to capacity and not to deny them life-saving aid for non-payment of advance or lack of documents. Further, there is a direction to hand over all test reports and discharge summary when a patient leaves the hospital's care. Transparency and public display The list of services, baseline and package rates, patients' rights and contact details of the grievance officers are to be prominently displayed in English and Malayalam at the reception as well as the official websites of the clinical establishments. Updated patient information brochure A brochure containing services offered, baseline and package rates, insurance claim procedures, discharge procedures, grievance redressal, etc. are to be provided in English/Malayalam at the time of admission. These have to be promptly updated. Grievance redressal mechanism Grievance redressal desks are to be maintained with reference numbers for each complaint, which shall be endeavoured to be resolved within 7 working days. Escalations for serious and unresolved issues are also to be provided. Compliance filings Every clinical establishment is required to file an undertaking of compliance with the Act within 30 days and the same has to be audited within 60 days, followed by periodically audits. Patient remedies Patient remedies can be achieved through complaints before the consumer commissions, the local police, the State Police Chief, legal services authorities, etc. The Court also directed the Registry to forward the judgment to the Chief Secretary of the state government and to the State Police Chief, who are to issue appropriate orders to ensure strict compliance laid down under the Act and the judgment. “State Government shall publicise the effective contents/directions issued in this judgment through visual media and print media, for a period of one month, in Malayalam and English daily, having wide circulation, so as to ensure broad public and to enable citizens to understand their rights regarding medical treatment,” the Court further directed and has asked for a compliance report in this regard. Thus, it disposed of the writ appeals. Guidelines The Court's guidelines, as stated in the judgment, are extracted : i. Capacity-Graded Emergency Care Every clinical establishment shall, at a minimum: (a) screen and stabilize emergency patients within its capacity; and (b) ensure safe transfer, with proper documentation and communication, to a higher centre when indicated. No establishment shall deny initial life-saving aid on the ground of non-payment of advance or lack of documents. (c) At the time of discharge of a patient from the hospital, the hospital authorities shall ensure that, along with the discharge summary, all investigation reports pertaining to the treatment, such as ECG, X-ray, CT scan, and other test reports, are also handed over to enable the patient to maintain proper records. ii. Transparency and Public Display (Reception/Admission Areas and Website) Each clinical establishment shall prominently display, in Malayalam and English, at the Reception/Admission desk and on its official website: (a) the list of services offered. (b) baseline and package rates for commonly performed procedures with a note that unforeseen complications or additional procedures shall be itemised. (c) key facility information, including bed categories, availability of ICU/OT, imaging and laboratory facilities, and ambulance/contact details. (d) a summary of Patients' Rights, including emergency care, informed consent, confidentiality, non-discrimination, access to medical records within 72 hours, itemised bills, and grievance redressal pathway; and (e) the name, phone number, and email ID of the Grievance Officer, along with contact details of the District Registering Authority/DMO helpline and other escalation contacts. iii. Patient Information Brochure At the time of admission, and as a downloadable document from the establishment's website, every hospital shall provide a brochure or leaflet in Malayalam and English containing information on: - services offered. - baseline and package rates with inclusion deposit and refund policy. - insurance/TPA empanelment and claim procedures. - estimate and billing policy. - discharge procedures. - ambulance and transport charges. - 24×7 emergency care protocol; and - grievance redressal and escalation mechanism. iv. Grievance Redress Mechanism (a) Every clinical establishment shall maintain a Grievance Desk/Helpline and register every complaint with a unique reference number, issuing an acknowledgement immediately through SMS, WhatsApp, or in physical form. (b) The establishment shall endeavour to resolve all complaints within seven (7) working days. Unresolved or serious matters shall be escalated to the District Registering Authority/DMO without delay. (c) Each establishment shall maintain a Complaint Register, in physical or electronic form, available for inspection. A summary of grievances and actions taken shall form part of the monthly compliance reports submitted to the competent authority. v. Updates and Accuracy All displayed rate lists, brochures, and website information shall be kept current. Any change in services, rates, or grievance contact details shall be promptly updated, with the date of revision clearly indicated. vi. Compliance with the Kerala Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2018 (a) Every clinical establishment shall file an undertaking of compliance with Sections 39 and 47 of the Act and the above directions within thirty (30) days from the date of this judgment before the District Registering Authority. (b) The said Authority shall conduct verification audits within sixty (60) days from the date of this judgment and thereafter periodically, taking appropriate action for any deficiencies detected, in accordance with the Act and Rules. vii. Patient Remedies (Without Prejudice to Other Rights) Patients shall remain at liberty to: (a) pursue remedies for deficiency of service before the competent Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission. (b) lodge complaints with the local police where appropriate, including cases involving alleged fraud or cheating. (c) escalate grave or systemic grievances to the Chief Secretary and the State Police Chief; and (d) seek assistance from the District or State Legal Services Authorities for advice and facilitation. All establishments shall cooperate fully and issue receipts for all payments and complaints received. viii. Language and Accessibility All mandatory displays, notices, and brochures shall be provided in Malayalam and English, and shall be clear, legible, and prominently accessible at the Reception/Admission areas and other conspicuous locations within each establishment, as well as on the homepage of its official website. ix. Non-Compliance Non-compliance with these guidelines shall attract regulatory action under the Kerala Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2018, including suspension or cancellation of registration and imposition of penalties, in addition to any civil, criminal, or constitutional remedies available to patients. Case No: WA NO. 1621 OF 2025 and connected case Case Title: Kerala Private Hospitals Association and Anr. v. State of Kerala and Ors. and connected case Citation: 2025 LiveLaw (Ker) 779 Counsel for the appellants: V.V. Asokan (Sr.), K.I. Mayankutty Mather (Sr.), K. Anand, T.K. Sreekala, S. Parvathi, Nikitha Susan Paulson, Uthara Asokan Counsel for the respondents: N. Manoj Kumar - State Attorney, S. Kannan - Senior Government Pleader, Ajith Joy

2025 നവംബർ 21, വെള്ളിയാഴ്‌ച

ECI has to tell the nation how it counted 1,77,673 more than the polled votes in Bihar Assembly Election 2025 ?

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 1/12

ECI has to tell the nation how it counted 1,77,673 more than the polled votes?

Why did it change the total number of electors twice after announcing the final SIR figure?

Why did the ECI not announce the gross number of votes polled in the state?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393123248075248?t=uBxqcaLA3tfTN2z9PStJmA&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 2/12

As per EC press note No. ECI/PN/313/2025 dated 30/09/2025 the total electors after it  ‘successfully completed’ SIR in Bihar is 
~ 7.42 crores. 
Why approximation (~) instead of actual number?

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 3/12

As per press note No. ECI/PN/316/2025 dated 6th October, 2025, EC revised this number after adding 1,63,619 Service Voters and brought the total number to 
7,43,55,976
https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393147117805633?t=CBApZz0K0FEWd9ojO54m5Q&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 4/12

The press note No. ECI/PN/351/2025 dated 11.11.2025, after completion of polling put the total number of electors at 7,45,26,858 
and said the polling was 66.91%
https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393158996062410?t=GJ2On_uRTY2BMYIEXQ_HRg&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 5/12

Then, in the press note No. ECI/PN/352/2025 dated 12.11.2025, EC made an upward revision of polling to 67.13%
https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393169326694636?t=1N4PUZgStlKHXvC_D7gT7g&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 6/12

The gross number of votes polled - calculated as 67.13% of 7,45,26,858 comes to 5,00,29,880

But the total number of votes counted from all the 243 constituencies adds up to 5,02,07,553
(I have screenshots of the ECI declarations for all 243)

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393174087168095?t=Kb3k4RI-koiR7k5JV2mI3Q&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 7/12

The difference between polled votes 
and counted votes from all 243 constituencies comes to 1,77,673 votes

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393178109583367?t=65rfpMKTvUVEl7REGRS9mQ&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 8/12

ECI has to tell the nation why and how did it count 1,77,673 more than the polled votes?

Why did it change the total number of electors twice after announcing the final SIR figure?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393181938995403?t=SAWQLJa-ZOhPX2O1hFQhYQ&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 9/12

Why did the ECI not announce the gross number of votes polled in the state? 

Why did they not reveal the gross number of votes polled in each constituency?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393185868968088?t=YYw5qle6dQTjTjI2alLydA&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 10/12

When EC can give percentage polling figures what difficulty does it face to announce the gross voting figures state-wide and constituency-wise?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393189975191608?t=Zs2OCZGpV5oqe1ecDNqC9A&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 11/12

Is the ECI's doing/non-doing simply an innocent muddle? Or incompetence? Or carelessness? Or a tendentious smokescreen/opacity to benefit a Party? 
Or sheer arrogance that it’s above the law and accountability?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393193976574305?t=r6yXsbooL8j3xQqRnc_GnA&s=19

Decoding Bihar Miracle - 12/12

Is the beneficiary of this ECI Muddle/Incompetence/Carelessness/Arrogance/Tendentious smokescreen /Opacity, innocent and unaware of it and really thinks that its mandate in Bihar is genuine and is a result of its winning the hearts of the people?

https://x.com/parakala/status/1991393197940175101?t=ALSFyVTo5S9Hia1NtObj9A&s=19




 

2025 നവംബർ 20, വ്യാഴാഴ്‌ച

Kerala High Court Seeks Action Taken Report Against Vlogging Inside Driver Cabins Of Moving Buses, Heavy Vehicles

IN THE HIGH COURT OF KERALA AT ERNAKULAM
PRESENT
THE HONOURABLE MR. JUSTICE ANIL K.NARENDRAN
&
THE HONOURABLE MR.JUSTICE MURALEE KRISHNA S.
Wednesday, the 19th day of November 2025 / 28th Karthika, 1947
WP(C) NO. 25158 OF 2024(S)
SUO MOTU
RESPONDENTS:
1. UNION OF INDIA, REPRESENTED BY THE SECRETARY (ROAD,TRANSPORT AND
HIGHWAYS), MINISTRY OF ROAD TRANSPORT AND HIGHWAYS, TRANSPORT
BHAWAN, GOKUL NAGAR, SANSAD MARG AREA, NEW DELHI, PIN - 110001
2. THE STATE OF KERALA, REPRESENTED BY THE CHIEF SECRETARY TO
GOVERNMENT, GOVERNMENT SECRETARIAT, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, KERALA,
PIN - 695001
3. THE SECRETARY TO GOVERNMENT, TRANSPORT DEPARTMENT, GOVERNMENT
SECRETARIAT, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, KERALA, PIN - 695001
4. THE TRANSPORT COMMISSIONER OF KERALA, TRANSPORT COMMISSIONERATE,
2ND FLOOR, TRANS TOWER, C.V. RAMAN PILLAI ROAD, VAZHUTHACAUD,
THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, KERALA, PIN - 695014
5. THE STATE POLICE CHIEF OF KERALA, STATE POLICE HEADQUATERS,
VAZHUTHACAUD, THIRUVANANTHAPURAM, KERALA, PIN - 695010
ADDITIONAL R6 IMPLEADED
 6. NOUSHAD I, S/O.SULAIMAN, AGED 42 YEARS,
 IRUMBADASSERI HOUSE, 
 VADASSERY, PANNIPPARA P.O., EDAVANNA, MALAPPURAM DISTRICT,
 PIN - 676 541. 
 ADDL. R6 IS IMPLEADED AS PER ORDER DATED 13/09/2024 IN
 IA.1/2024 IN WP(C) 25158/2024. 
ADDITIONAL R7 IMPLEADED
 7. THE KERALA STATE ROAD TRANSPORT CORPORATION,
 REPRESENTED BY ITS MANAGING DIRECTOR,
 TRANSPORT BHAVAN, FORT P.O., THIRUVANANTHAPURAM - 695 023.
 ADDL. R7 IS SUO MOTU IMPLEADED AS PER ORDER DATED
 22/01/2025 IN WP(C) 25158/2024.
 P.T
ADDITIONAL R8 IMPLEADED
 8. AJIN TOM ALEX, AGED 30 YEARS, S/O ALEX THOMAS,
 15/304, PADINJATTINKARA ANUGRAHA, NELLIKUNNAM P.O,
 KOLLAM DISTRICT - 691 520.
 ADDL. R8 IS IMPLEADED AS PER ORDER DATED 05/02/2025
 IN IA 1/2025 IN WP(C) 25158/2024. 
 
 This Suo Motu writ petition again coming on for orders upon perusing the
petition, this Court's order dated 05/11/2025 and upon hearing the arguments of SRI. R.V.SREEJITH, SENIOR PANEL COUNSEL for R1, SRI. S RAJMOHAN, SENIOR GOVERMENT PLEADER & SRI. P. SANTHOSH KUMAR, SPECIAL GOVERNMENT PLEADER for R2
to R5, SRI. K.RAKESH, Advocate for Addl.R6, M/S. DEEPU THANKAN, UMMUL FIDA,
LAKSHMI SREEDHAR, LEKSHMI P. NAIR, VINEETHA BOSE, CINDIA S. & GAYATHRI
G., Advocates for Addl.R7 and of M/S. KEVIN JAMES, SHABNAM SAIDALAVI, ATHUL M.V., DEAGO JOHN K & ASWIN V. NAIR, Advocates for Addl.R8, the court passed the following.

ANIL K. NARENDRAN & MURALEE KRISHNA S., JJ.
 --------------------------------------------------------------
W.P.(C)Nos.25158 and 25129 of 2024
 ----------------------------------------------------------------
Dated this the 19th day of November, 2025
ORDER
Anil K. Narendran, J.
In terms of the directions contained in the order of this Court dated 05.11.2025, the learned Senior Panel Counsel for 
Government of India has placed on record copy of AIS-008 -
Installation Requirements of Lighting and Light-Signalling Devices for Motor Vehicle having more than Three Wheels 
including Quadricycles, Trailer and Semi-Trailer excluding Agricultural Tractors - and copy of AIS-052 - Code of Practice for Bus Body Design and Approval, with the amendments made 
thereto.

2. In paragraphs 33 and 34 of the decision in S.Rajaseekaran v. Union of India [2025 SCC OnLine SC 2191 
: 2025 INSC 1189] the Apex Court noticed hazards from dazzling LED headlights, red-blue strobe lights and unauthorised emergency hooters. Paragraphs 33 and 34 of the said decision  read thus;

“33. Hazards from Dazzling LED Headlights, Red-Blue 
Strobe Lights, and Unauthorised Emergency Hooters:

33. This Court notes with particular concern the widespread use of dazzling white LED headlights, unauthorised red-blue strobe lights, and hooters that 
mimic emergency sirens. High-intensity headlights, including those fitted in two-wheelers, cause temporary visual disorientation and glare for oncoming drivers, as well as pedestrians. Pedestrians face momentary loss of 
spatial awareness, increasing the risk of being hit or tripping into roadside drains, pits, or other hazards. Drivers experience reduced reaction time, difficulty judging 
distances, and impaired lane discipline, particularly on narrow streets and highways, which heightens the 
likelihood of collisions.
34. Red-blue strobes, intended exclusively for authorised emergency vehicles, are increasingly misused by private vehicles and are freely available in the market. Similarly, hooters that imitate emergency sirens are illegally installed on private vehicles. Such misuse creates a false sense of 
authority, intimidation, and panic among pedestrians and other road users. Drivers may react abruptly, slow down 
unnecessarily, or make erratic manoeuvres, creating traffic 
disruptions and raising accident risk. Pedestrians may freeze, retreat, or take unsafe evasive actions, increasing 
their exposure to injury. The unauthorised use of these lights and siren-like hooters also undermines respect for genuine emergency services, diluting the authority and effectiveness of legitimate responders during critical 
situations.” (underline supplied)

3. In paragraph 35 of the decision in S. Rajaseekaran v. Union of India [2025 SCC OnLine SC 2191] the Apex Court issued various directions. Paragraph 35.15 deals with directions on white LED dazzling headlights, red-blue strobe lights and unauthorised hooters. Paragraph 35.15 of the said decision reads thus;
“Directions on White LED Dazzling Lights, Red-Blue Strobe Lights, and Unauthorized Hooters:
35.15. The Ministry of Road Transport & Highways (MoRTH), State Transport Departments, and traffic police 
authorities shall prescribe maximum permissible luminance and beam angles for vehicle headlights and ensure 
compliance through checks during PUC testing and vehicle fitness certification, while conducting targeted drives to 
penalize non-compliant or modified headlights. A complete ban on unauthorized red-blue strobe flashing lights and illegal hooters shall be enforced through seizure, market 
crackdowns, and penalties. Simultaneously, nationwide public awareness campaigns by MoRTH, state transport departments, and traffic police shall be conducted to sensitize drivers and pedestrians about the hazards posed by dazzling headlights, unauthorized strobe lights, and illegal hooters, thereby enhancing overall road safety.”

4. The learned Special Government Pleader to get instructions from the Transport Commissioner and also the State Police Chief as to whether any action is being taken to prevent 
videography by vloggers inside the driver compartment of moving contract carriages and even heavy goods vehicles and against the use of contract carriages, stage carriages and other 
motor vehicles on public place, openly flouting the safety standards in AIS-008 and AIS-052, posing threat to the safety of the passengers in such vehicles as well as other road users. The rampant use of such vehicles on public place is evident from the promotional videos posted in YouTube and other social media platforms. Openly flouting the safety standards and the directions issued by this Court in various orders, DJ lights, laser lights, multi-colour LED lights are fitted inside the passenger 
compartment, in addition to high-power music system. Alternative power source with inverter and multiple batteries, 
etc., are also installed inside the luggage compartment of most of the contract carriages, posing threat to the safety of the passengers.

List on 21.11.2025. 
 Sd/-
 ANIL K. NARENDRAN, JUDGE 
 Sd/-
MURALEE KRISHNA S., JUDGE

Kerala High Court Seeks Action Taken Report Against Vlogging Inside Driver Cabins Of Moving Buses,


The Kerala High Court recently underscored the rampant issue of contract carriages and other heavy good vehicles openly flouting the safety standards prescribed by the Central Government.

The Division Bench of Justice Anil K. Narendran and Justice Muralee Krishna S. on Wednesday (November 19) remarked that a lot of these vehicles are not adhering to the lighting installation requirements and Code of Conduct for Bus Body Design as per the Automotive Industry Standard, namely, AIS-008 and AIS-052.

It orally noted with concern the safety threats that these violations cause to passengers and pedestrians.

The Court then asked the government pleader to get instructions from the Transport Commissioner and the State Police Chief if any action is being taken to prevent videography by vloggers inside the driver compartment of moving contract carriages and even heavy goods vehicles and against the use of contract carriages, stage carriages and other motor vehicles on public place in violation of the safety standards.

The Bench observed in its order:

“The rampant use of such vehicles on public place is evident from the promotional videos posted in YouTube and other social media platforms. Openly flouting the safety standards and the directions issued by this Court in various orders, DJ lights, laser lights, multi-colour LED lights are fitted inside the passenger compartment, in addition to high-power music system. Alternative power source with inverter and multiple batteries, etc., are also installed inside the luggage compartment of most of the contract carriages, posing threat to the safety of the passengers.”

The Court had on previous occasion commented upon the issue of vloggers taking videos inside the drivers' cabins, leading to drivers losing their concentration and resulting in road accidents. It had then directed the Enforcement Officers in the Motor Vehicles Department to collect videos of extensively modified and altered vehicles by registered owners or vloggers uploaded on online video platforms like YouTube.

“Vloggers are there even in goods carriages. Inside the driver's cabin, video recording is going on. Recently, while with the video recording was going on, a vehicle met with an accident also…It appears that the enforcement officers find it difficult to enforce…because there is public protest. Earlier also we passed an order whereby when a vehicle is caught in this manner, the fitness certificate has to be suspended for a period of 3 months. We will consider whether such things will have to be imposed or not,” the Court orally observed yesterday.

Placing reliance on the recent Supreme Court decision in S. Rajaseekaran v. Union of India, the Court highlighted the safety hazards related to LED lights, red-blue strobe lights and unauthorized hooters.

The Court then referred to a recent road accident that had killed around 40 persons and the luggage compartment was found to have contained around 300 mobile phones. It also touched upon the topic of videography in drivers' compartments, even during school trips, endangering students' safety.

“Most of these vehicles are used as for transporting goods. In so far as these contract carriages are concerned, most of the vehicles are having alternate power source inside the passenger compartment with battery and inverter used for domestic purpose… There are videos posted by YouTubers or Vloggers promoting these types of activities and there are videos which are recorded inside school campus. In the presence of the teaching staff, this vehicle is being taken out of school campus with loud music, students dancing and even the parents of the students are taking video in mobile phones, without knowing what will be consequence and what is the threat to the safety of the students,” the Court had orally remarked.

Yesterday, as per the Court's previous direction, the aforementioned safety standards along with amendments were produced. It then orally told that it would go through the same and posted the matter on Friday.

“We will have this matter on Friday. If found necessary, we will ask the Transport Commissioner to appear online. If found necessary,” the Court orally told.

Case No: WP(C) 25158/2024

Case Title: Suo Motu v. Union of India and Ors.

TimelinesCant Be Fixed For Governors President For Bills Assent No Concept Of Deemed Assent Supreme Court In Presidential Reference-310575

Answering the reference made by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, under Article 143 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court on Thursday (November 20) held that the Court cannot impose any timelines for decisions of the President and the Governor on granting assent to Bills under Articles 200/201 of the Constitution.

The Court further held that the concept of Courts declaring "deemed assent" to the Bills if the timelines are breached was antithetical to the spirit of the Constitution and against the doctrine of separation of powers. The concept of Courts declaring "deemed assent" is virtually a take over of the functions reserved for the Governor.

"We have no hesitation in concluding that deemed consent of the Governor, or President, under Article 200 or 201 at the expiry of a judicially set timeline, is virtually a takeover, and substitution, of the executive functions by the Judiciary, through judicial pronouncement, which is impermissible within the contours of our written Constitution," the Court held.

At the same time, the Court observed if there is a prolonged or unexplained delay by the Governor which frustrates the legislative process, then the Court can exercise a limited power of judicial review to direct the Governor to decide in a time-bound manner, without observing anything on the merits of the Bill.

A bench comprising Chief Justice of India BR Gavai, Justice Surya Kant, Justice Vikram Nath, Justice PS Narasimha and Justice AS Chandurkar heard the matter for ten days and reserved its opinion on September 11.

The Presidential reference was made in May, soon after the judgment delivered by a two-judge bench in the Tamil Nadu Governor case, which laid down timelines for the President and the Governor to act on Bills.

The reference raised 14 queries. They were answered by the Court as follows :

1. What are the constitutional options before a Governor when a Bill is presented to him under Article 200 of the Constitution of India?

Answer -Upon presentation of the bill, the Governor can assent to the bill, withhold assent or reserve for the President's assent. Withholding of the assent must be accompanied by the returning of the Bill to the Assembly as per the first proviso to Article 200. First proviso(which says Bill be returned to the Assembly) is not a fourth option, but qualifies the option of withholding assent. Thus, if assent to the Bill is withheld, then it must necessarily be returned to the Assembly. To permit the Governor to withhold the Bill without returning it to the house will derogate the principle of federalism. The Court rejected the Union's argument that the Governor can simply withhold the Bill without returning to the House.

2. Is the Governor bound by the aid & advice tendered by the Council of Ministers while exercising all the options available with him when a Bill is presented before him under Article 200 of the Constitution of India?

Answer - Ordinarily, the Governor exercises functions under the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. But in Article 200, the Governor exercises discretion. The Governor enjoys discretion under Article 200, as indicated by the use of the words "in his opinion" in the second proviso of Article 200. 

The Governor has discretion either to return the bill or to reserve the Bill for the President.

3. Is the exercise of constitutional discretion by the Governor under Article 200 of the Constitution of India justiciable?

Answer - The discharge of Governor's functions under Article 200 is not justiciable. The Court cannot enter into a mert-review of the decision so taken. However, in a glaring circumstance of inaction, that is prolonged, unexplained and indefinite, the Court can issue a limited mandamus for the Governor to discharge his functions under Article 200 within a reasonable time period without making any observation on the merits of the excercise of the discretion.

4. Is Article 361 of the Constitution of India an absolute bar to the judicial review in relation to the actions of a Governor under Article 200 of the Constitution of India?

Answer : Article 361 is an absolute bar on judicial review. However, it cannot be used to negate the limited scope of judicial review that this Court is empowered to exercise in cases of prolonged inaction by the Governor under Article 200. While the Governor enjoys personal immunity, the office of the Governor is subject to this Court's jurisdiction.

5. In the absence of a constitutionally prescribed time limit, and the manner of exercise of powers by the Governor, can timelines be imposed and the manner of exercise be prescribed through judicial orders for the exercise of all powers under Article 200 of the Constitution of India by the Governor?

6. Is the exercise of constitutional discretion by the President under Article 201 of the Constitution of India justiciable?

7. In the absence of a constitutionally prescribed timeline and the manner of exercise of powers by the President, can timelines be imposed and the manner of exercise be prescribed through judicial orders for the exercise of discretion by the President under Article 201 of the Constitution of India?

Answers - Questions 5, 6 and 7 answered together -

The text of Articles 200 and 201, has been framed in such a manner, so as to provide a sense of elasticity, for constitutional authorities to perform their functions, keeping in mind the diverse contexts and situations, and by consequence the need for balancing that might arise in the process of law-making in a federal, and democratic country like ours. The imposition of timelines would be strictly contrary to this elasticity that the Constitution so carefully preserves.

In the absence of a Constitutionally prescribed timelimit, it would not be appropriate for this Court to judicially prescribe a timeline for the exercise of powers under Article 200. For similar reasoning as held for the Governor, the President's assent under Article 201 is not justiciable. For the same reason, the President too cannot be bound by judicially prescribed timelines for the exercise of powers under Article 201.

8. In light of the constitutional scheme governing the powers of the President, is the President required to seek advice of the Supreme Court by way of a reference under Article 143 of the Constitution of India and take the opinion of the Supreme Court when the Governor reserves a Bill for the President's assent or otherwise?

Answer : President is not required to seek the advice of the Court every time a Bill is reserved by the Governor. The subjective satisfaction of the President is sufficient. If there is a lack of clarity or need for advice, the President may refer.

9. Are the decisions of the Governor and the President under Article 200 and Article 201 of the Constitution of India, respectively, justiciable at a stage anterior into the law coming into force? Is it permissible for the Courts to undertake judicial adjudication over the contents of a Bill, in any manner, before it becomes law?

Answer . No. The decisions of the Governor and the President under Article 200 and Article 201 of the Constitution of India, respectively, are not justiciable at a stage anterior into the law coming into force. Bills can be challenged only if they become the law.

10. Can the exercise of constitutional powers and the orders of/by the President / Governor be substituted in any manner under Article 142 of the Constitution of India?

Answer . No. The exercise of constitutional powers and the orders of/by the President / Governor cannot be substituted by this Court in any manner under Article 142 of the Constitution of India. We clarify that the Constitution, specifically Article 142, does not allow the concept of "deemed assent" of Bills.

11. Is a law made by the State legislature a law in force without the assent of the Governor granted under Article 200 of the Constitution of India?

Answer- Answered in terms of Question 10's answer. There is no question of a law made by the State Legislature coming into force without the assent of the Governor under Article 200. Governor's legislative role under Article 200 cannot be supplanted by another Constitutional authority.

12. In view of the proviso to Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India, is it not mandatory for any bench of this Hon'ble Court to first decide as to whether the question involved in the proceedings before it is of such a nature which involves substantial questions of law as to the interpretation of constitution and to refer it to a bench of minimum five Judges?

Answer - Returned unanswered as the question is not relevant to the functional nature of this reference.

13. Do the powers of the Supreme Court under Article 142 of the Constitution of India limited to matters of procedural law or Article 142 of the Constitution of India extends to issuing directions /passing orders which are contrary to or inconsistent with existing substantive or procedural provisions of the Constitution or law in force?

Answer - Answered as part of Question 10.

14. Does the Constitution bar any other jurisdiction of the Supreme Court to resolve disputes between the Union Government and the State Governments except by way of a suit under Article 131 of the Constitution of India?

Not answered as it is found irrelevant.

Background

During the hearing, the Court clarified many times that it won't be sitting in appeal over the TN Governor judgment and that it will only answer the Constitutional questions. States such as Tamil Nadu, Kerala, West Bengal and Punjab raised objections to the maintainability of the reference on the ground that the questions were already answered in the TN Governor judgment.

The Court questioned whether the Governors can indefinitely withhold Bills. If the Governors can withhold Bills without returning them to the Assembly, it will place the elected Government at the whims of the Governor, the Court commented. The Court also wondered if blanket timelines for the President and the Governor can be justified merely by certain isolated instances of delay.

Attorney General for India R Venkataramani argued against the Court fixing timelines for the President and Governor for the exercise of their powers under Articles 200 and 201. He added that the Court cannot take over the functions of the Governors by declaring deemed assent for Bills.

Solicitor General of India Tushar Mehta, for the Union Government, also opposed the Court's timelines for Governors. While agreeing that the Governors cannot indefinitely sit on bills, SG Mehta asserted that Courts cannot lay down a straitjacket timeline. Issuing a mandamus to Constitutional high functionaries in relation to the exercise of their discretionary powers is a violation of the principle of the separation of powers.

Senior Advocate Kapil Sibal (for the State of West Bengal), Senior Advocate Dr AM Singhvi (for Tamil Nadu), Senior Advocate KK Venugopal (for Kerala), Senior Advocate Gopal Subramanium (for State of Karnataka) and Senior Advocate Arvind P Datar (for State of Punjab) made arguments in support of the timelines and judicial intervention in cases of delays by Governors.

Senior Advocate Harish Salve (for State of Maharashtra), and Senior Advocate Mahesh Jethmalani (for State of Chhattisgarh) etc, argued in support of the Union's position.

Case Details: IN RE : ASSENT, WITHHOLDING OR RESERVATION OF BILLS BY THE GOVERNOR AND THE PRESIDENT OF INDIA

Citation : 2025 LiveLaw (SC) 1124